Hi - can someone help me?
I bought a flat (£300k) and lived it in for around 2 years before moving out - I then rented it out (with consent from my lender) for the remainder of the fixed 5 year period.
I then remortgaged and got a buy-to-let mortgage. Valued at £400k.
Question: if I sell for say £500k, do I pay CGT on the uplift since I bought it (£500k less £300k = £200k) or when I remortgaged (£500k less £400k = £100k)
Subject to the usual deductions/exemptions etc
Thanks
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