Hello,
I am a Thailand Tax resident, I have a property in the UK which is rented out and I am non resident in the UK, looking at the tax implication if I was to sell the property in the future.
I think I understand what is due in the UK using HMRCs calculator, what I am not understanding fully is my position in Thailand. Thailand does not have CGT tax but instead gains are taxed as income. I have read lots of contrasting opinions.
The most reliable source I have contacted is an International Tax Lawyer of a large company based in Thailand and has told me this would not be subject to Thailand tax laws.
Article 14 (1) of the UK Thailand DTA states:
"1 Capital gains from the alienation of immovable property, as defined in paragraph (2) of
Article 7, may be taxed in the Contracting State in which such property is situated. "
The tax lawyer has said when you see the words "may be taxed" these do not have the usual laymans meaning but instead the legal words mean that because the UK has CGT then the immovable property is subject to UK CGT and not subject to Thailand tax.
Now this advice is from a well qualified reliable source, but I don't understand why the DTA does not use "can only be taxed in" to make it clearer, and as I have read other opinions although from less reliable sources I'm looking for more confirmation of the intention of the use of "may be taxed"
Thanks.
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