The unhelpful plan administrator insisted that they were obliged to withhold the standard non-resident 30% on periodic payments (despite having a valid W8-BEN on file which should have overridden that withholding, as the US doesn’t have tax rights). So, withdrawing from the fund in instalments (with tax only payable in the UK) would have meant my continuing to have to file annual US tax returns to get back that withholding. Although I was sure they were wrong, I eventually gave up arguing with the administrator and took a one-off lump sum distribution instead. I calculated that the higher total tax due (now only to the US) wasn’t going to be that much more, plus I got all my money sooner. Arguably the biggest attraction of taking the lump sum was the pleasure of never having to deal with the pension company or the IRS again.
A year ago, my research into the tax treaty position concluded that a lump sum option would only be taxable in the US. Now that I am in the process of filling in my 2024/25 UK tax return, I have come across online sources saying that only recently in 2025, the UK may have deviated from its long-standing precedent of not taxing US pension lump sums. It appears HMRC might be willing to invoke the so-called “savings clause” that is included in the treaty at the insistence of the USA. However, I don’t interpret that what HMRC has actually said definitively changes anything. As far as I can tell, all HMRC has done is reiterate what has always been legally true, namely that the UK could also apply the savings clause to override most provisions of the treaty. However, HMRC hasn’t categorically stated that it will now abandon its precedent and apply that clause to enable taxation of tax US lumps sums. This brings me to the first of my two questions: has the UK actually started enforcing this (if anyone knows for sure), rather than just reminding taxpayers that it can and so encouraging them to pay.
If I complete my UK tax return without claiming tax treaty exemption, then HMRC will inevitably get its additional share of the (now greater) total combined US & UK tax (the UK will tax mostly at the 40% marginal rate, so US tax credits wouldn’t cover all the UK tax due). Therefore, I don’t see I have anything to lose by claiming the lump sum exemption from UK tax, based on precedent at the time of the payment, and then seeing if HMRC disagrees. This income was received when precedent undeniably pointed to no tax being payable in the UK. So, my second question is: does HMRC have a track record of applying updated guidance retrospectively?
Thank you